Can a person who owns two companys (1 VAT reg 1 not) invoice from the VAT reg company to the non-VAT reg company and issue the invoice from before they were VAT reg so that they don't have to include it in the return?
Example Company 1( VAT reg) issues a sales invoice for company 2 (not VAT reg) but the invoice is raised in December but they put the date as the 1 August and the money is transfered between companies in the December. I am a bit confused in this as an accountant has said this can be done.
Janet
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