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I have a client who has bought a car from Kia on a "conditional sale". I am led to believe that this is the same as hire purchase. Has anyone come across this before? Am I right in thinking that a car bought on hire purchase/conditional sale qualifies for capital allowances on the full purchase price in the first year even though the car is being paid for in installments. It is on zero finance so there are no finance charges. If there had been I woulf have put these through as an expense. Am I approaching this correctly. Any advice would be much appreciated.
Many thanks in advance.
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