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Study Question

  • 7 posts
  • # 74682

Hello,
  I am studying the level 3 manual using the Kaplan Advanced bookeeping study book.
  I have a question from page 52 (Activity 3) ZZ Ltds.
  In the additional information provided part b says an interim dividend of 2p has been paid on ordinary shares, and one half of the dividend on preference shares.
My question is this;
Looking at the answers at the back of the book the accrued preference dividend is 2400.  I was wondering where that figure comes from and how do I disect the information in parts b and c.
Any help would be greatly appreciated
Thanks
William

I think Ive worked it out, 8% * 30,000 (half the dividend)= 2400.  I assume thats correct, but I thought the 8% was the interest costs of the loan, i.e finance cost in the p&l.  Is it right to assume that an 8% Preference share refers to both 8% interest on loan and also 8% dividend paid?    Does the 8% figure have two functions? 

Edited at 27 Sep 2011 04:38 PM GMT

  • 88 posts
  • # 74691

Good morning Jimpelican,

Like you I'm studying level 3. I've run into a brick wall with the mock exam paper. 

Try working the other way round,  one half of the dividend not of the shares. e.g.  one half of 8%= 4% x 60,000 = 2,400 interim dividend and  4% (2,400) accruing. 

Keep going
Tim
 

  • 7 posts
  • # 74708

Thanks Tim, that is a good way to look at it.  I think I got carried away with the 2p interim dividend which I later realised had already been paid.
That'll teach me to read the questions properly! 

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