Re the original question
As a starting point, it is generally correct that the VAT status of your customer should not determine the VAT liability of supplies to it. There are a few exceptions however - such as certain supplies to charities or under a special statutory concession, for certain supplies to international organisations (such as NATO, EU Commission) In any case, it is the responsibility of the supplier to apply the correct VAT treatment and therefore they should obtain a signed declaration as to why VAT should not be charged (assuming this is a UK customer?). Provided the legal basis for this declaration is correct, HMRC tend to take a pragmatic approach to supplies relying on this declaration in the event it turns out to be incorrect.
If you can find out why the customer thinks it should not be charged VAT, I may be able to help further. Certainly, just because they make exempt supplies (as opposed to overseas (outside the scope) or zero rated) there is no obvious reason not to be charged VAT on purchases - suffering irrecoverable VAT is an unfortunate consequence of being involved in an exempt activities. If the customer is overseas, they do have a habit of using the term "exempt" where we would say zero rated or outside the scope of UK VAT
Nicola PS - I am also an Associate of the Institute of Indirect Taxation
Edited at 10 Jul 2011 08:43 PM GMT
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